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Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?

10.06.2025 00:08

Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?

What's (not “whats”) the rule?

Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.

You'll usually find your answer there.

Liberals, why don't you like Conservatives?

While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.

Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.

Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.

Tulsa, Oklahoma, plans more than $105m in reparations for America's 'hidden' massacre - BBC

Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.

There's no rule.

If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.

How will Israelis respond to someone claiming that anti-Zionism is not anti-Semitism, in the same way as anti-feminism not being misogyny and opposing same-sex marriage not being homophobia?

Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.